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Non-Opioid analgesics and antihistaminic pharmacology

Indicate the clinical condition that is an indication for NSAID monotherapy:
A. extra-articular rheumatic diseases (myositis, tendovaginitis, synovitis)
B. systemic lupus erythematosus
C. dermatomyositis
D. migraine
E. all of the above diseases

Correct answer is :
Extra-articular rheumatic diseases (myositis, tendovaginitis, synovitis)

Compared with indomethacin, acetylsalicylic acid has a more pronounced
A. analgesic effect
B. inhibition of Pg synthesis
C. antiplatelet effect on platelets
D. anti-inflammatory effect
E. antipyretic effect

Correct answer is :
Antiplatelet effect on platelets

Choose a selective COX-2 inhibitor:
A. acetylsalicylic acid
B. diclofenac
C. celecoxib
D. ketorolac
E. indomethacin

Correct answer is :
Celecoxib

The following drug has the greatest gastrotoxicity:
A. ibuprofen
B. indomethacin
C. meloxicam
D. diclofenac
E. paracetamol

Correct answer is :
Indomethacin

Why prescribing NSAIDs in the last trimester of pregnancy is undesirable:
A. slowing down of labor activity
B. increase myometrium contractility
C. mutagenic effect
D. impairment of fetal bone and teeth growth
E. activation of the clotting system

Correct answer is :
Slowing down of labor activity

The interaction of NSAIDs with ACE inhibitors in the treatment of arterial hypertension leads to:
A. weakening of the hypotensive effect
B. intensification of the hypotensive effect
C. CNS depression
D. decrease of gastro-toxicity of NSAIDs
E. elimination of anti-aggregant effect of NSAIDs

Correct answer is :
weakening of the hypotensive effect

In the case of interaction of indomethacin with other drugs:
A. the diuretic activity of furosemide increases
B. Hypotensive effect of enalapril decreases
C. toxic effect of cardiac glycosides decreases
D. activity of indirect anticoagulants decreases
E. no interaction with other drugs

Correct answer is :
Hypotensive effect of enalapril decreases

Which side effect of NSAIDs is corrected by the complex drug arthrotec (diclofenac + misoprostol):
A. bleeding
B. “NSAID gastropathies”
C. aplastic anemia
D. sodium retention
E. nephrotoxic effect

Correct answer is :
“NSAID gastropathies”

The main mechanism of action of NSAIDs is:
A. antibacterial
B. antiprostaglandin
C. antihistamine
D. inhibition of antigen-antibody reaction
E. antileukotriene

Correct answer is :
antiprostaglandin

The main pharmacodynamic effects of NSAIDs are all of the following except:
A. antipyretic
B. anabolic
C. anti-inflammatory
D. analgesic
E. antiaggregant

Correct answer is :
Anabolic

After taking NSAIDs, the effect develops more quickly:
A. anti-inflammatory
B. analgesic
C. desensitizing
D. antiaggregant
E. all effects simultaneously

Correct answer is :
Analgesic

The most pronounced anti-inflammatory effect possesses:
A. ibuprofen
B. paracetamol
C. ketorolac
D. diclofenac
E. analgin

Correct answer is :
Diclofenac

Specify the disadvantage of highly selective COX2 blockers:
A. pronounced gastrotoxic effect
B. bleeding tendency
C. Worsening prognosis in CHD
D. neuro-muscular blockade
E. mental disorders

Correct answer is :
Worsening prognosis in CHD

The anti-inflammatory effect of GCS is realized through:
A. COX blockade
B. blockade of LOG
C. blockade of leukotriene receptors
D. activation of phospholipase A2
E. phospholipase A2 blockade

Correct answer is :
phospholipase A2 blockade

Which is not a side effect of GCS:
A. sodium and water retention
B. increase in plasma glucose
C. protein catabolism
D. potassium retention
E. anti-inflammatory effect

Correct answer is :
potassium retention

Which phase of inflammation does GCS inhibit:
A. alteration
B. exudation
C. proliferation
D. all of the above
E. none of them

Correct answer is :
All phases are correct

Mineralcorticoid effect is most prominent in:
A. hydrocortisone
B. prednisolone
C. methylprednisolone
D. triamcinolone
E. betamethasone

Correct answer is :
Hydrocortisone

The effect of GCS on calcium metabolism:
A. improve absorption of calcium in the intestine
B. promote accumulation of calcium in bone tissue
C. cause hypocalcemia and hypercalciuria
D. impair renal excretion of calcium
E. increase accumulation of calcium in bones

Correct answer is :
cause hypocalcemia and hypercalciuria

One statement is correct: Glucocorticosteroids:
A. inhibit exudation
B. inhibit exudation and alteration
C. inhibit exudation and proliferation
D. inhibit alteration and proliferation
E. inhibit all phases of inflammation

Correct answer is :
Inhibit all phases of inflammation

Glucocorticoids cause:
A. lymphocytopenia
B. monocytopenia
C. eosinopenia
D. stimulate red blood cell and platelet formation
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
All are correct

When administered orally, GCS are absorbed:
A. quickly and almost completely in the jejunum
B. gradually throughout the intestine at about 70%
C. slowly over 2-3 hours, with food interfering with absorption
D. fast, but food intake decreases absorption by 50%
E. fully absorbed in the stomach

Correct answer is :
quickly and almost completely in the jejunum

The negative effect of GCS on metabolism is manifested by:
A. hypoglycemia
B. decreased appetite
C. lipid decrease
D. protein catabolism
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
protein catabolism

Negative effect of GCS on endocrine system may manifest itself as
A. acceleration of puberty
B. acceleration of growth in children
C. accelerated adrenal function
D. increase in libido
E. dis- and amenorrhea

Correct answer is :
Dysmenorrhea and amenorrhea

The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal system is the most depressed:
A. prednisolone
B. methylprednisolone
C. hydrocortisone
D. dexamethasone
E. beclamethasone

Correct answer is :
Dexamethazone

Measures to prevent adrenal insufficiency during GCS treatment:
A. observe the circadian rhythm of administration
B. use alternating therapy
C. gradually decrease the dose if the course of treatment exceeds 2 weeks
D. use the lowest effective dose
E. all answers are correct

Correct answer is :
All given answers are correct

The main indication for prescribing intranasal cromoglycate is:
A. bronchial asthma
B. allergic rhinitis
C. recurrent urticaria
D. food allergy
E. purulent maxillary sinusitis

Correct answer is :
Allergic rhinitis

The mechanism of action of GCS in bronchial asthma is expressed in the following, except:
A. reduction of antibody production
B. blockage of biologically active substances
C. reduction of edema
D. pronounced bronchodilator effect
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
Pronounced bronchodilator effect

Which drug has the maximum anti-inflammatory effect in the treatment of allergic rhinitis:
A. azelastine (allergodil)
B. cromoglycate (intal)
C. beclazon (nasobec)
D. loratadine (Claritin)
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
Beclazon

Which antihistamine can potentiate the effects of alcohol:
A. desloratadine (erius)
B. fexofenadine (Telfast)
C. cetirizine (Zyrtec)
D. loratadine (Claritin)
E. ebastine (kestin)

Correct answer is :
Cetirizine

The dose of which antihistamine medication should be reduced in a patient with CKD:
A. loratadine (claritin)
B. cetirizine (Zyrtec)
C. desloratadine (erius)
D. clemastine (tavegil)
E. fexofenadine (Telfast)

Correct answer is :
Cetirizine

The clinical effect of ketotifen is manifested after:
A. 2 hours
B. 2 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
E. 1 month

Correct answer is :
1 month

Antihistamines may be considered as basal agents in the treatment of:
A. allergic rhinitis
B. vasomotor rhinitis
C. bronchial asthma
D. infectious allergic myocarditis
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
Allergic rhinitis

Select the drug that should be administered first in anaphylactic shock:
A. prednisolone
B. adrenaline
C. pepolfen
D. eufylline
E. digoxin

Correct answer is :
Adrenaline

CNS depression as a side effect of first generation antihistamines increases:
A. alcohol
B. sedatives
C. tranquilizers
D. hypnotics
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
All are correct

Generation III antihistamines do not include:
A. cetirizine
B. levocetirizine
C. loratadine
D. fexofenadine
E. desloratadine

Correct answer is :
Loratidine

Choose a characteristic side effect for second generation antihistamines:
A. CNS depression
B. cardiotoxicity
C. bowel atony
D. bladder atony
E. tachyphylaxis

Correct answer is :
Cardiotoxicity

Generation I antihistamines do not include:
A. dimedrol
B. suprastin
C. phencarol
D. cetirizine
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
Cetirizine

Note the disadvantage of first-generation antihistamines:
A. tachyphylaxis
B. CNS depression
C. tachyardia
D. bowel atony
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
All are correct

First-generation antihistamines are capable of blocking:
A. H1 receptors
B. serotonin receptors
C. M-cholinoreceptors
D. adrenergic receptors
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
All are correct

H1-blockers are most effective in
A. prevention of non-allergic inflammation
B. treatment of allergic reactions
C. prevention of allergic reactions
D. treatment of nonallergic inflammation
E. exacerbation of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer is :
prevention of allergic reactions

Stimulation of H1 receptors causes:
A. formation of allergic inflammation
B. increased secretion of hydrochloric acid
C. pancreatic enzyme secretion
D. CNS excitation
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
formation of allergic inflammation

Which method of administration of GCS refers to local therapy:
A. inhaled
B. intraarticular
C. intradermal (into the scars)
D. Intracavitary (intrapleural, etc.)
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
All are correct

Indications for GCS pulse therapy are:
A. graft rejection reaction
B. dermatomyositis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. multiple sclerosis
E. all of them

Correct answer is :
All of them

Which GCS contains dipropane:
A. prednisolone
B. triamcinolone
C. dexamethasone
D. betamethasone
E. hydrocortisone

Correct answer is :
Betamethazone

Which route of excretion all GCSs have:
A. filtration in the kidneys
B. hepatic metabolism
C. secretion by renal tubules
D. excretion with bile
E. all of them

Correct answer is :
Hepatic metabolism

The earliest unwanted effects of GCS are:
A. cataracts
B. steroid ulcer
C. osteoporosis
D. cushingoid syndrome
E. adrenal insufficiency

Correct answer is :
Steroid ulcer

Mark the GCS with the greatest mineralocorticoid activity:
A. prednisolone
B. hydrocortisone
C. triamcinolone
D. methylprednisolone
E. dexamethasone

Correct answer is :
Hydrocortisone

State the interaction effects of prednisolone and estrogenic drugs:
A. enhancement of GCS effects
B. sodium retention
C. increase in edema
D. acceleration of blood clotting
E. all of the above

Correct answer is :
All listed interactions are correct

Specify the drug with the least ulcerogenic action:
A. prednisolone
B. triamcinolone
C. betamethasone
D. dexamethasone
E. methylprednisolone

Correct answer is :
Methylprednisolone

List the indications for a short course of GCS:
A. adrenal insufficiency
B. Allergic inflammation control
C. autoimmune process
D. severe bronchial asthma
E. glomerulonephritis

Correct answer is :
Allergic inflammation control

Relative contraindications to prednisolone are all except:
A. diabetes mellitus
B. peptic ulcer disease
C. severe arterial hypertension
D. asthmatic status
E. severe heart failure