Biology Exam Modules

Q 1. Animal cells are connected by _______ Desmosome Cell wall Cell Membrane Plasmodesmata Answer – 4, PlasmodesmataExplanation: Plasmodesmata are thin strands of cytoplasm that connect the cytoplasm of adjacent cells, allowing for the exchange of materials such as proteins and ions. Animal cells are connected by plasmodesmata, while plant cells are connected by desmosomes and a cell wall surrounding them.   Q 2. The rRNA is synthesized by _________ Golgi body Nucleus Nucleolus Cytoplasm Answer – 3, NucleolusExplanation: The rRNA is synthesized by the Nucleolus. The Nucleolus is a specialized structure found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and is the site for

Q1. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub-stage of prophase I in meiosis? Diakinesis Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene Answer – 3, PachyteneExplanation: The process of the appearance of recombination nodules occurs during the Pachytene sub-stage of prophase I in meiosis. It is important to note that this is a very complex stage of meiosis and requires a thorough understanding to answer this question accurately.   Q2. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in G2 Phase M phase S phase G1 phase Answer – 3, S phaseExplanation: Replication of DNA takes place in the S phase of the cell cycle. The

Q 1. An attribute found in plants but not animals is Metabolism Sexual reproduction Autotrophy Asexual reproduction Answer: 3, AutotrophyExplanation: Autotrophy is an attribute found in plants but not animals. Autotrophs are organisms that make their food using a process known as photosynthesis, and they do not need any other organism to survive. On the other hand, animals rely on obtaining energy from their environment or from autotrophs, which can be through ingestion, absorption, or photosynthesis.   Q 2. Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters? Family Species pision Class Answer: 2, speciesExplanation: Species would be less general in

Q1. What does the term “cellular respiration” refer to? Water decomposition, The breakdown of air to release energy, Food items decomposing to produce energy, Energy is released as soil breaks down. Answer- Option (3) is correct.Explanation: Cellular respiration is the process by which food components are broken down inside of a cell to produce energy, which is then captured to create ATP. Eukaryotes, which include all multicellular creatures and some single-celled species, generate energy through aerobic respiration. The most potent electron acceptor found in nature, oxygen, is used in aerobic respiration. Eukaryotes’ complex life functions and busy lives are made possible by

Q 1. Which of the following developed for the first time in Annelids? Cephalization Development of a true coelom Metameric segmentation Both 2 and 3 Answer – 4, both 2 & 3Explanation: Cephalization, which is the concentration of nerve tissue at the anterior end of an organism, and metameric segmentation, which is the pision of the body into segments, are two significant evolutionary developments that first developed in Annelids. Animal Kingdom’s courses will teach you more about these biological phenomena and their influence on modern species.   Q 2. What is the most crucial reason for the immense success of arthropods? Chitinous

Q 1. As a result of photorespiration, glycolate is converted into serine and carbon dioxide in the following ways: Mitochondria Chloroplasts Vacuoles Peroxisomes Answer: d, PeroxisomesExplanation: Photorespiration involves converting glycolate into serine and carbon dioxide in peroxisomes. Plants undergo photorespiration through the oxygenation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) instead of the desired carboxylation reaction, which is the outcome of photorespiration. Consequently, glycolate is formed, which needs to be salvaged to prevent carbon and energy loss. In the peroxisomes, glycolate is metabolized through a series of reactions known as the glycolate pathway. This pathway involves several enzymatic steps, leading to the conversion of glycolate into

Q1. In humans, what is true about RBCs? They transport about 80% of oxygen, and the remaining 20% is dissolved in blood plasma. They transport 99.5% of oxygen About 20-25% of CO2 is carried by them CO2 is not held by them Answer – 2, They transport 99.5% of oxygenExplanation: Red blood cells (RBCs) transport 99.5% of Oxygen and carry about 20-25% of Carbon Dioxide (CO2). The remaining 0.5% of oxygen is transported in the dissolved state in blood plasma, while the rest of the CO2 is exhaled during respiration.   Q2. Pick the incorrect statement A bird’s ability to breathe efficiently

Q1. The release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by enterokinase cholecystokinin secretin Both 2 and 3 Answer – 4, Both 2 and 3Explanation: Both 2 and 3 are correct. Enterokinase, or enteropeptidase, is an enzyme in the small intestine responsible for activating trypsin from pancreatic juice. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone produced in the small intestine that stimulates the release of enzymes and bile from the pancreas and gall bladder. Secretin is another hormone in the small intestine that stimulates the pancreas to release watery juice-containing enzymes called pancreatic juice.   Q2. In vertebrates, lacteals are found in ileum ischium esophagus Ear

Q1. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellets or paste by Pavo Ornithorhynchus Salamandra Hippocampus Answer – 1, PavoExplanation: Nitrogenous waste is excreted as pellets or paste by these animals. This excretion process, known as “uricotelism”, allows the organism to conserve water and eliminate nitrogenous waste products as a paste or a dry powder.   Q2. Which one of the following hormones reduces blood pressure? Antidiuretic hormone Atrial Natriuretic factor Aldosterone Angiotensin-ll Answer – 2, Atrial Natriuretic factorExplanation: The hormone responsible for reducing blood pressure is the Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF), released from the walls of the atria in response to increased

Q 1. Among the glands mentioned below, which of the following is not involved in the process of digestion? Stomach Salivary Glands Adrenal Gland Liver Answer – Option (c) is correctExplanation: The Stomach is the site for digestion and secreted many enzymes that break down large macromolecules. The liver also contributes to digestion by releasing bile juice and other digestive enzymes. Salivary glands release saliva which breaks down carbohydrates in the food. Adrenal glands are not directly associated with digestion but the hormones secreted by them might regulate the metabolism of food.   Q 2. Which of the following statements correctly explains

Q 1. Which of the following organs serve as the primary reproductive organ in human males and females respectively? Testis in males and Ureter in females. Urethra in males and Ovary in females. Testis in males and Ovary in females. None of these. Answer- Option (3) is correct.Explanation: The primary reproductive organ of a human male is the testis because it produces and releases the male gametes or sperm. Similarly, in human females, the ovary produces and releases the female gametes or ova. When the two gametes(sperm and egg) fertilize, reproduction proceeds further and a new organism can be produced. The ureter

Q 1. Which of the following assertions regarding SMOG is true? SMOG originates from fog. SMOG is formed from smoke. SMOG originates from water vapor. SMOG originates through the combination of fog and smoke. Answer- Option (1) is correct.Explanation: Neither fog nor smoke alone can result in smog. As the name suggests smoke is a combination of smoke and fog. When smoke released from burning fossil fuels, wood, etc combines with fog in the atmosphere, it results in smog which reduces visibility and makes breathing difficult. Water vapor directly does not result in smog formation.   Q 2. The main contributors of

Q 1. Because of the presence of _________, spider blood typically has a blue color. Hemerythrin Hemoglobin Hemocyanin none of the aforementioned. Answer- Option (3) is correct. Explanation: Haemoglobin is found in humans and other higher animals and it is red in color. Hemeeyrhtin is used for oxygen transport in marine invertebrates and it is colorless in the absence of oxygen but turns violet-pink when it is attached to oxygen. Hemocyanin is seen in arthropods, particularly spiders and it has a typical blur appearance which makes the spider’s blood blue.   Q 2. Which of the following organisms exhibits diploblastic organization? Hydra,

Q 1. If a colorblind woman marries an average-visioned man, their sons will be Three-fourths colorblind and one-fourth normal One-half colorblind and one-half normal All normal visioned All colorblind Answer: a, Three-fourths colorblind and one-fourth normalExplanation: Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait passed down from fathers to their sons. If both father and mother are carriers of the genetic trait (neither being colorblind), then there is a three in four chance that any son born to them will be colorblind.   Q 2. Which of the following is the significance of dominance? organisms with dominant genes have stronger vitality the dominant

Q 1. Which of the options listed below is not the purpose of a sequence comparison? To identify any shared patterns between the two sequences. Investigating the physical characteristics of molecules To investigate evolutionary links To spot conservation trends Answer: Option(2) is correct.Explanation: A comparison is necessary to determine if it is likely that two sequences originated from the same sequence. Sequence comparison is also used to determine whether sequences from the database are comparable to the sequence in question.   Q 2. In the mutation process of a genetic algorithm, _______ no changes are made to the sequence changes are made

1. Perisperm is-(a) Degenerate secondary nucleus (b) Remnant of nucleus(c) Peripheral part of endosperm (d) Degenerate synergids 2. Which of the following fruit is a case of parthenogenesis?(a) Fruit without seeds after pollination(b) Fruit with seeds afterpollination(c) Fruit with viable seeds without fertilization(d) Fruit with viable seeds after fertilization. 3. If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm has 24 chromosomes, the root cell of megaspore mother cell should have-(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 4 (d) 24 4. How many meiotic divisions are needed for forming 100 grains of wheat?(a) 100 (b) 25 (c) 50(d)20 5. Aleurone layer is present in(a)

Question 1.In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by(a) glycosidic bonds(b) phosphodiester bonds(c) peptide bonds(d) hydorgen bonds. Answer:(b) phosphodiester bonds   Question 2.The net electric charge on DNA and histones is(a) both positive(b) both negative(c) negative and positive, respectively(d) zero. Answer:(c) negative and positive, respectively   Question 3.Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?(a) It cannot be treated with iron supplements.(b) It is a molecular disease.(c) It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria.(d) All of the above. Answer:(d) All of the above.   Question 4.The first genetic material could be(a) protein(b) cabohydrates(c)

Question 1.If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is(a) autosomal dominant(b) autosomal recessive(c) sex-linked dominant(d) sex-linked recessive. Answer:(d) sex-linked recessive.   Question 2.In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes for valine ?(a) GGG(b) A AG(c) G A A(d) GUG Answer:(d) GUG   Question 3.Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of(a) pleiotropy(b) co-dominance(c) segregation(d) incomplete dominance. Answer:(b) co-dominance   Question 4.ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen

Question 1.Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle(a) at the mind secretory phase(b) just before the end of the secretory phase(c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase(d) at the end of the proliferative phase. Answer:(d) at the end of the proliferative phase.   Question 2.After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into(a) corpus atresia(b) corpus callosum(c) corpus luteum(d) corpus albicans Answer:(c) corpus luteum   Question 3.Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as(a) chorion(b) zona pellucida(c) corona radiata(d) vitelline membrane. Answer:(c) corona radiata   Question 4.Which one of the following events

Question 1.What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiospermic embryo sac?(a) Brings about opening of the pollen tube(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid(c) Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid(d) None of these Answer:(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid Question 2.The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is(a) 8 – celled(b) 7 – celled(c) 6 – celled(d) 5 – celled Answer:(b) 7 – celled Question 3.Polygonum type of embryo sac is(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled(b) 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled(c) 7 –

1. The segregation of alleles on one trait did not have any effect on the segregation of alleles on a different trait. This is based on ____________a) Mendel’s law of Heredityb) Mendel’s law of Dominancec) Mendel’s law of Independent Assortmentd) Mendel’s law of Segregation Answer: cExplanation: There are three Mendel’s laws n Heredity. 1. The Mendel’s law of Dominance states that when a dominant individual is crossed with a recessive individual, the F1 generation offspring will exhibit the dominant trait. 2. According to Mendel’s law of Segregation, a pair of allele governing a single trait segregates from each other during

1. Why are enzymes required?a) Enzymes help to yield more productb) Enzymes increase the activation energy of the reactionc) Enzymes decrease the activation energy of the reactiond) Enzymes maintain the equilibrium in the reaction Answer: cExplanation: Chemical reactions need certain covalent bond breakage within the reactants. For this, the reactants must contain sufficient kinetic energy called the activation energy. Enzymes act as catalysts that speed up the reaction by lowering the activation energy required for breaking the covalent bonds. 2. Competitive enzyme inhibitors are ________a) Reversible inhibitorsb) Irreversible inhibitorsc) Permanent inhibitorsd) None of the mentioned Answer: aExplanation: Irreversible inhibitors are

1. The electron clouds around the nucleus are of ___________a) Spherical shapeb) Spherical and Dumbbell shapec) Spherical and Hexagonal shaped) Cannot be determined Answer: bExplanation: Electrons swarm around the nucleus of an atom in a mostly unpredictable fashion. Erratic electron behaviour is best described by the electron cloud model. The electron cloud is an area around the nucleus of an atom where electrons are most likely to be found. The clouds are roughly defined by their boundaries which is either spherical or dumbbell shape. 2. Atoms or molecules having orbitals containing a single unpaired electron is known as ___________a) Captionsb)

1. Which monomers compose the strands of nucleic acids?a) Amino acidsb) Ribosec) Functional groupsd) Nucleotides Answer: dExplanation: The strands of nucleic acids are composed of monomeric units called nucleotides. Nucleic acids are mainly the storage sites for genetic information and also have structural and catalytic functions. 2. What are the types of nucleic acids are found in living organisms?a) deoxyribonucleic acid & nucleotide acidb) deoxyribonucleic acid & ribonucleic acidc) ribonucleic acid & nucleotide acidd) ribonucleic acid & nucleoside acid Answer: bExplanation: Two types of amino acids are found in living organisms namely DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). DNA

1. In an amino acid, the carboxyl group and amino group are separated from each other by a single ____________ atom.a) nitrogenb) sulphurc) hydrogend) carbon Answer: dExplanation: Proteins are polymers containing amino acids as monomers. There are twenty different types of amino acids, with varying functional groups. Every amino acid has a carboxyl group and an amino group separated by a single carbon atom between them. 2. Amino acids used in the synthesis of proteins on a ribosome are ________________a) D-amino acidsb) Mutated amino acidsc) L-amino acidsd) Fluorescing amino acids Answer: cExplanation: Explanation: In most organisms including humans, the L

1. Lipids cannot dissolve in _____________a) organic solventsb) chloroformc) benzened) water Answer: dExplanation: Lipids are vital biomolecules that have a characteristic property of being able to dissolve in organic solvents such as benzene and chloroform and their inability to dissolve in water. 2. Which types of bonds are found in fats?a) amideb) glycosidicc) esterd) acidic Answer: cExplanation: Fatty acids consist of one glycerol moiety linked to three fatty acids via ester bonds; the composite molecule is called triacylglycerol or neutral fat. 3. How many carboxyl groups are present in fatty acids?a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4 Answer: aExplanation: Fatty acids are

1. The genetic material of a prokaryote is present in the ______________a) Nucleusb) Cytoplasmc) Nucleoidd) Plasmid Answer: cExplanation: Bacteria does not contain a true nucleus. Nucleoid is a poorly demarcated region of the cell that contains the bacterial genetic material or bacterial DNA. 2. Which of the following is not true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?a) Same composition of plasma membraneb) Both contain shared metabolic pathwaysc) Genetic information encoded in DNA with similar genetic coded) Both contain Golgi apparatus for protein trafficking Answer: dExplanation: Prokaryotic cells do not have organelles such as Golgi Apparatus. However, the composition of plasma

1. Heptoses are __________ a) sugars b) proteins c) amino acids d) monomers Answer: a Explanation: Heptoses are carbohydrates that contain 7 atoms of carbon. The sugars of importance in cellular metabolism contain 3 to 7 carbon atoms. 2. Fructose is a _____________ a) aldose sugar b) ketose sugar c) monosaccharide d) polymer Answer: b Explanation: Fructose is a ketose sugar because the carbonyl group (C==O) is located in an internal position to form a ketone group. If the carbonyl bond is located at one end of the sugar it is called aldose sugar. 3. The compounds which have same

1. Which of the following is released when a Hydrogen atom loses an electron?a) Nucleusb) Protonc) Charged) Ion Answer: bExplanation: Whenever a hydrogen atom releases a shared electron in solution, a proton is also released. For example, acetic acid undergoes dissociation reaction to release acetate ion and a proton. 2. Which of the following is an example of amphoteric molecule?a) Acetic acidb) Malic acidc) Sugarsd) Water Answer: dExplanation: Water is an example of both an acid and a base, and is therefore an amphoteric molecule. It can accept a proton thereby acting as a base and can also donate a

1. A cell organelle that is present in animal cells but not present in plant cells is?a) Cytoplasmb) Centrosomec) Mitochondriald) Cytoplasmd) Golgi complex Answer: bExplanation: Plant cells lack a centrosome and lysosomes, while animal cells do. Animal cells lack a cell wall, chloroplasts, and other specialized plastids, as well as a big central vacuole, but plant cells do. 2. Which of the following cell is found in the brain?a) Neuronb) Hepatocytec) Nephrond) Epithelial cell Answer: aExplanation: Hepatocyte is found in the liver. The nephron is the filtering unit of the kidney. Epithelial cell lines the surfaces of your body. 3.

1. What is a cell?a) smallest and advanced unit of lifeb) smallest and basic unit of lifec) largest and basic unit of lifed) largest and advanced unit of life Answer : bExplanation: A cell is the smallest and most fundamental unit of life, responsible for all of life’s operations. All living beings have cells that serve as structural, functional, and biological units. 2. Which of the following is a functional unit of a body?a) Mitochondriab) Cytoplasmc) Spleend) Cell Answer: dExplanation: Because all living beings are made up of cells, the cell is recognized as the structural and functional unit of